0

Could anybody advise me what is the meaning of the phrase below?

"knowingly have the reason to believe that AA will be re-sold to QQ"

This is apparently a contractual phrase and appears in the context of :

"XX shall not sell AA in PP or knowingly have the reason to believe that AA will be re-sold to QQ"

 

A paraphrase in English would be all right.

Thank you in avdance.

6 comments

  • 0
    Avatar
    mirko

    Hi maynard,

    Is "to QQ" followed by "with the view to re-sale in PP" (or something similar), by any chance? In my opinion, that is a provision that aims to prevent that XX distributes AA in a given area (which is probably assigned to YY by a similar agreement), either directly ("XX shall not sell AA in PP") or indirectly ("knowingly have the reason to believe that AA will be re-sold to QQ [with the view to re-sale in PP]"). This way, a company grants territorial exclusivity to, and avoids competition between, agents and/or distributors selling their products/services in any given region.

    Or at least, that's how I'd interpret it.

    Hope this helps,

    Mirko

  • 0
    Avatar
    maynard

    Hello Mirko

    Thank you very much for the prompt reply. I am sorry I should have been more straightforward.

    I suppose I almost understand the contractual situation itself. XX is in a restricted condition in selling AA both directly and indirectly.

    What I would like to learn is the exact meaning of the expression "(XX shall not) knowingly have the reason to believe that" itself.

    In this case,  I am assuming that the "knowingly" would mean something like "with knowledge of what is being done". But, I am not very sure about the meaning of "have the reason to believe that" in this context. Would it be wrong if I paraphrase the phrase in question as "(XX shall not) overlook a situation where" (AA will be re-sold to others)?

    Any advice would be highly appreciated.

  • 0
    Avatar
    mirko

    Oh, I see, my bad! Actually, if I had to translate "XX shall not sell AA in PP or knowingly have the reason to believe that AA will be re-sold to QQ [...]" from "Legalese" into "Less-Legalese", I would go for something like: "XX undertakes not to sell AA in PP, nor to sell to any third party if they know or suspect that such third party will re-sell AA to QQ [...]".

    So, even more straightforward: "sell AA in PP or knowingly have the reason to believe that AA will be re-sold to QQ [...]" > "sell AA in PP or sell AA to anyone while having reason to suspect that AA will then be re-sold to QQ [...]".

    Probably the main issue with the whole thing here is that in the first case you have an action, "sell", so it's clear what "you shall not sell" means, while in the second case the sentence almost appears as separate and expressing a 'state' (or a 'constative utterance'), so it may in fact sound strange to read "XX shall not knowingly have the reason to believe that [...]" or "XX shall not have reason to suspect that [...]", but I see the first as a prohibition for the future, while the latter as an extension to that prohibition, as written in the examples above, rather than some kind of separate precondition or provision.

    I may be totally wrong, but that's how I see it (and I hope it makes sense, somehow! :)

  • 0
    Avatar
    maynard

    Mirko

    Thank you very much.

    Your advice really worked!

     

     

  • 0
    Avatar
    mirko

    Glad I could be of help! :-)

  • 0
    Avatar
    Natalia Manidis

    Nice one, Mirko! :)

Please sign in to leave a comment.